10th Science Guide – Samacheer Kalvi Book Solutions
10th Science guide with Samacheer Kalvi book back solutions, chapter by chapter, as per the 2026-27 textbook.
This page has samacheer kalvi 10th science book solutions for all 23 units of the 2026-27 textbook, from Laws of Motion and Optics to Genetics, Health and Diseases, and Visual Communication. Each question is worked out step by step, so you can follow the reasoning and not just copy the result. Use these 10th science book back answers to check your work after you try the exercises yourself.
Unit 1: Laws of Motion
47 questions in this unit
I. Choose the correct answer
- Q1. Inertia of a body depends on
- Q2. Impulse is equals to
- Q3. Newton's III law is applicable
- Q4. Plotting a graph for momentum on the Y-axis and time on X-axis. slope of momentum-time graph gives
- Q5. In which of the following sport the turning of effect of force used
- Q6. The unit of 'g' is mathrmm s⁻². It can be also expressed as
- Q7. One kilogram force equals to
- Q8. The mass of a body is measured on planet Earth as M kg. When it is taken to a planet of radius half that of the Earth t…
- Q9. If the Earth shrinks to 50% of its real radius its mass remaining the same, the weight of a body on the Earth will
- Q10. To project the rockets which of the following principle(s) is /(are) required?
II. Fill in the blanks
- Q1. To produce a displacement ____ is required
- Q2. Passengers lean forward when sudden brake is applied in a moving vehicle. This can be explained by ____
- Q3. By convention, the clockwise moments are taken as ____ and the anticlockwise moments are taken as ____
- Q4. ____ is used to change the speed of car.
- Q5. A man of mass 100 kg has a weight of ____ at the surface of the Earth
III. State whether the following statements are true or false. Correct the statement if it is false
- Q1. The linear momentum of a system of particles is always conserved.
- Q2. Apparent weight of a person is always equal to his actual weight
- Q3. Weight of a body is greater at the equator and less at the polar region.
- Q4. Turning a nut with a spanner having a short handle is so easy than one with a long handle.
- Q5. There is no gravity in the orbiting space station around the Earth. So the astronauts feel weightlessness.
IV. Match the following
V. Assertion & Reasoning
VI. Answer briefly.
- Q1. Define inertia. Give its classification.
- Q2. Classify the types of force based on their application.
- Q3. If a 5 N and a 15 N forces are acting opposite to one another. Find the resultant force and the direction of action of…
- Q4. Differentiate mass and weight.
- Q5. Define moment of a couple.
- Q6. State the principle of moments.
- Q7. State Newton's second law.
- Q8. Why a spanner with a long handle is preferred to tighten screws in heavy vehicles?
- Q9. While catching a cricket ball the fielder lowers his hands backwards. Why?
- Q10. How does an astronaut float in a space shuttle?
VII. Solve the given problems
- Q1. Two bodies have a mass ratio of 3:4 The force applied on the bigger mass produces an acceleration of 12 mathrmms⁻². Wha…
- Q2. A ball of mass 1 kg moving with a speed of 10 mathrmms⁻¹ rebounds after a perfect elastic collision with the floor. Cal…
- Q3. A mechanic unscrew a nut by applying a force of 140 N with a spanner of length 40 cm. What should be the length of the…
- Q4. The ratio of masses of two planets is 2:3 and the ratio of their radii is 4:7 Find the ratio of their accelerations due…
VIII. Answer in detail.
- Q1. What are the types of inertia? Give an example for each type.
- Q2. State Newton's laws of motion?
- Q3. Deduce the equation of a force using Newton's second law of motion.
- Q4. State and prove the law of conservation of linear momentum.
- Q5. Describe rocket propulsion.
- Q6. State the universal law of gravitation and derive its mathematical expression
- Q7. Give the applications of universal law gravitation.
IX. HOT Questions
- Q1. Two blocks of masses 8 kg and 2 kg respectively lie on a smooth horizontal surface in contact with one other. They are…
- Q2. A heavy truck and bike are moving with the same kinetic energy. If the mass of the truck is four times that of the bike…
- Q3. "Wearing helmet and fastening the seat belt is highly recommended for safe journey" Justify your answer using Newton's…
Unit 2: Optics
40 questions in this unit
I. Choose the correct answer
- Q1. The refractive index of four substances A, B, C and D are 1.31, 1.43, 1.33, 2.4 respectively. The speed of light is max…
- Q2. Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of same size is obtained by a convex lens
- Q3. A small bulb is placed at the principal focus of a convex lens. When the bulb is switched on, the lens will produce
- Q4. Magnification of a convex lens is
- Q5. A convex lens forms a real, diminished point sized image at focus. Then the position of the object is at
- Q6. Power of a lens is –4D, then its focal length is
- Q7. In a myopic eye, the image of the object is formed
- Q8. The eye defect ‘presbyopia’ can be corrected by
- Q9. Which of the following lens would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in a dictionary?
- Q10. If VB, VG, VR be the velocity of blue, green and red light respectively in a glass prism, then which of the following s…
II. Fill in the blanks:
- Q1. The path of the light is called as ____
- Q2. The refractive index of a transparent medium is always greater than ____
- Q3. If the energy of incident beam and the scattered beam are same, then the scattering of light is called as ____ scatteri…
- Q4. According to Rayleigh’s scattering law, the amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power…
- Q5. Amount of light entering into the eye is controlled by ____
III. True or False. If false correct it.
IV. Match the following:
V. Assertion and reasoning type
VI. Answer Briefly
- Q1. What is refractive index?
- Q2. State Snell’s law.
- Q3. Draw a ray diagram to show the image formed by a convex lens when the object is placed between F and 2F.
- Q4. Define dispersion of light
- Q5. State Rayleigh’s law of scattering
- Q6. Differentiate convex lens and concave lens.
- Q7. What is power of accommodation of eye?
- Q8. What are the causes of ‘Myopia’?
- Q9. Why does the sky appear in blue colour?
- Q10. Why are traffic signals red in colour?
VII. Give the answer in detail
VIII. Numerical Problems:
Unit 3: Thermal Physics
28 questions in this unit
I. Choose the correct answer
- Q1. The value of universal gas constant
- Q2. If a substance is heated or cooled, the change in mass of that substance is
- Q3. If a substance is heated or cooled, the linear expansion occurs along the axis of
- Q4. Temperature is the average ____ of the molecules of a substance
- Q5. In the Given diagram, the possible direction of heat energy transformation is
II. Fill in the blanks:
III. State whether the following statements are true or false, if false explain why?
IV. Match the items in column-I to the items in column-II
V. Assertion and reason type questions
VI. Answer in briefly
- Q1. Define one calorie.
- Q2. Distinguish between linear, arial or superficial expansion.
- Q3. What is co-efficient of cubical expansion?
- Q4. State Boyle's law
- Q5. State-the law of volume
- Q6. Distinguish between ideal gas and real gas.
- Q7. What is co-efficient of real expansion?
- Q8. What is co-efficient of apparant expansion?
VII. Numerical problems
VIII. Answer in detail
Unit 4: Electricity
39 questions in this unit
I. Choose the best answer
II. Fill in the blanks
III. State whether the following statements are true or false: If false correct the statement.
- Q1. Ohm's law states the relationship between power and voltage.
- Q2. MCB is used to protect house hold electrical appliances.
- Q3. The SI unit for electric current is the coulomb.
- Q4. One unit of electrical energy consumed is equal to 1000 kilowatt hour.
- Q5. The effective resistance of three resistors connected in series is lesser than the lowest of the individual resistances.
IV. Match the items in column-I to the items in column-II:
V. Assertion and reason type questions:
- Q1. Mark the correct choice as Assertion: Electric appliances with a metallic body have three wire connections. Reason: Thr…
- Q2. Mark the correct choice as Assertion: In a simple battery circuit the point of highest potential is the positive termin…
- Q3. Mark the correct choice as Assertion: LED bulbs are far better than incandescent bulbs. Reason: LED bulbs consume less…
VI. Very short answer questions.
VII. Short answer questions
VIII. Long answer questions.
- Q1. With the help of a circuit diagram derive the formula for the resultant resistance of three resistances connected: a) i…
- Q2. a) What is meant by electric current? b) Name and define its unit. c) Which instrument is used to measure the electric…
- Q3. a) State Joule's law of heating. b) An alloy of nickel and chromium is used as the heating element. Why? c) How does a…
- Q4. Explain about domestic electric circuits. (circuit diagram not required)
- Q5. a) What are the advantages of LED TV over the normal TV? b) List the merits of LED bulb.
IX. Numerical problems:
- Q1. An electric iron consumes energy at the rate of 420 W when heating is at the maximum rate and 180 W when heating is at…
- Q2. A 100 watt electric bulb is used for 5 hours daily and four 60 watt bulbs are used for 5 hours daily. Calculate the ene…
- Q3. A torch bulb is rated at 3 V and 600 mA. Calculate it's a) power b) resistance c) energy consumed if it is used for 4 h…
- Q4. A piece of wire having a resistance R is cut into five equal parts. a) How will the resistance of each part of the wire…
X. HOTS:
- Q1. Two resistors when connected in parallel give the resultant resistance of 2 ohm; but when connected in series the effec…
- Q2. How many electrons are passing per second in a circuit in which there is a current of 5 A?
- Q3. A piece of wire of resistance 10 ohm is drawn out so that its length is increased to three times its original length. C…
Unit 5: Acoustics
41 questions in this unit
I. Choose the correct answer
- Q1. When a sound wave travels through air, the air particles
- Q2. Velocity of sound in a gaseous medium is 330 mathrmms⁻¹. If the pressure is increased by 4 times without causing a chan…
- Q3. The frequency, which is audible to the human ear is
- Q4. The velocity of sound in air at a particular temperature is 330 mathrmms⁻¹. What will be its value when temperature is…
- Q5. If a sound wave travels with a frequency of 1.25 × 10⁴ Hz at 344 mathrmms⁻¹, the wavelength will be
- Q6. The sound waves are reflected from an obstacle into the same medium from which they were incident. Which of the followi…
- Q7. Velocity of sound in the atmosphere of a planet is 500 mathrmms⁻¹. The minimum distance between the sources of sound an…
II. Fill up the blanks
- Q1. Rapid back and forth motion of a particle about its mean position is called ____
- Q2. If the energy in a longitudinal wave travels from south to north, the particles of the medium would be vibrating in ____
- Q3. A whistle giving out a sound of frequency 450 Hz, approaches a stationary observer at a speed of 33 mathrmms⁻¹. The fre…
- Q4. A source of sound is travelling with a velocity 40 km/h towards an observer and emits a sound of frequency 2000 Hz. If…
III. True or false:- (If false give the reason)
IV. Match the following
V. Assertion and Reason Questions
VI. Answer very briefly
- Q1. What is a longitudinal wave?
- Q2. What is the audible range of frequency?
- Q3. What is the minimum distance needed for an echo?
- Q4. What will be the frequency sound having 0.20 m as its wavelength, when it travels with a speed of 331 mathrmms⁻¹?
- Q5. Name three animals, which can hear ultrasonic vibrations.
VII. Answer briefly
- Q1. Why does sound travel faster on a rainy day than on a dry day?
- Q2. Why does an empty vessel produce more sound than a filled one?
- Q3. Air temperature in the Rajasthan desert can reach 46°C. What is the velocity of sound in air at that temperature? (V₀ =…
- Q4. Explain why, the ceilings of concert halls are curved.
- Q5. Mention two cases in which there is no Doppler effect in sound?
VIII. Problem Corner
- Q1. A sound wave has a frequency of 200 Hz and a speed of 400 mathrmms⁻¹ in a medium. Find the wavelength of the sound wave.
- Q2. The thunder of cloud is heard 9.8 seconds later than the flash of lightning. If the speed of sound in air is 330 mathrm…
- Q3. A person who is sitting at a distance of 400 m from a source of sound is listening to a sound of 600 Hz. Find the time…
- Q4. An ultrasonic wave is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is found that the time interval between the tr…
- Q5. A man is standing between two vertical walls 680 m apart. He claps his hands and hears two distinct echoes after 0.9 se…
- Q6. Two observers are stationed in two boats 4.5 km apart. A sound signal sent by one, under water, reaches the other after…
- Q7. A strong sound signal is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is received back after 1s. What is the dept…
IX. Answer in Detail
- Q1. What are the factors that affect the speed of sound in gases?
- Q2. What is mean by reflection of sound? Explain: a) reflection at the boundary of a rarer medium b) reflection at the boun…
- Q3. a) What do you understand by the term 'ultrasonic vibration'? b) State three uses of ultrasonic vibrations. c) Name thr…
- Q4. What is an echo? a) State two conditions necessary for hearing an echo. b) What are the medical applications of echo? c…
Unit 6: Nuclear Physics
74 questions in this unit
I. Choose the correct answer
- Q1. Man-made radioactivity is also known as ____
- Q2. Unit of radioactivity is ____
- Q3. Artificial radioactivity was discovered by ____
- Q4. In which of the following, no change in mass number of the daughter nuclei takes place i) α decay ii) β decay iii) γ de…
- Q5. ____ isotope is used for the treatment of cancer.
- Q6. Gamma radiations are dangerous because
- Q7. ____ aprons are used to protect us from gamma radiations
- Q8. Which of the following statements is/are correct? i. α particles are photons ii. Penetrating power of γ radiation is ve…
- Q9. Proton - Proton chain reaction is an example of ____
- Q10. In the nuclear reaction mathrm₆X¹² xrightarrowα\ decay mathrmZYA, the value of A & Z.
- Q11. Kamini reactor is located at ____
- Q12. Which of the following is/are correct? i. Chain reaction takes place in a nuclear reactor and an atomic bomb. ii. The c…
II. Fill in the blanks
- Q1. One roentgen is equal to ____ disintegrations per second
- Q2. Positron is an ____.
- Q3. Anemia can be cured by ____ isotope
- Q4. Abbreviation of ICRP ____
- Q5. ____ is used to measure exposure rate of radiation in humans.
- Q6. ____ has the greatest penetration power.
- Q7. mathrmZYA → mathrm(Z+1)YA + X; Then, X is ____
- Q8. mathrmZXA → mathrmZYA This reaction is possible in ____ decay.
- Q9. The average energy released in each fusion reaction is about ____ J.
- Q10. Nuclear fusion is possible only at an extremely high temperature of the order of ____ K.
- Q11. The radio isotope of ____ helps to increase the productivity of crops.
- Q12. If the radiation exposure is 100 R, it may cause ____.
III State whether the following statements are true or false: If false, correct the statement
- Q1. Plutonium -239 is a fissionable material.
- Q2. Elements having atomic number greater than 83 can undergo nuclear fusion.
- Q3. Nuclear fusion is more dangerous than nuclear fission.
- Q4. Natural uranium U-238 is the core fuel used in a nuclear reactor.
- Q5. If a moderator is not present, then a nuclear reactor will behave as an atom bomb.
- Q6. During one nuclear fission on an average, 2 to 3 neutrons are produced.
- Q7. Einstein's theory of mass energy equivalence is used in nuclear fission and fusion.
IV. Match the following
- QMatch:I. a. BARC · Kalpakkam · b. India's first atomic power station · Apsara · c. IGCAR · Mumbai · d. First nuclear reactor in…
- QMatch:II. a. Fuel · lead · b. Moderator · heavy water · c. Control rods · cadmium rods · d. Shield · uranium
- QMatch:III. a. Soddy Fajan · Natural radioactivity · b. Irene Curie · Displacement law · c. Henry Bequerel · Mass energy equivalenc…
- QMatch:IV. a. Uncontrolled fission reaction · Hydrogen Bomb · b. Fertile material · Nuclear Reactor · c. Controlled fission reacti…
- QMatch:V. a. Fe - 59 · Age of fossil · b. I - 131 · Function of Heart · c. Na - 24 · Leukemia · d. C - 14 · Thyroid disease
V. Arrange the following in the correct sequence:
VI. Use the analogy to fill in the blank
VII. Numerical problems:
VIII. Assertion and reason type questions:
- Q1. Mark the correct choice as Assertion: A neutron impinging on mathrmU²³⁵, splits it to produce Barium and Krypton. Reaso…
- Q2. Assertion: In a β - decay, the neutron number decreases by one. Reason: In β - decay atomic number increases by one.
- Q3. Assertion: Extreme temperature is necessary to execute nuclear fusion. Reason: In a nuclear fusion, the nuclei of the r…
- Q4. Assertion: Control rods are known as 'neutron seeking rods' Reason: Control rods are used to perform sustained nuclear…
IX. Answer in one or two word (VSA)
- Q1. Who discovered natural radioactivity?
- Q2. Which radioactive material is present in the ore of pitchblende?
- Q3. Write any two elements which are used for inducing radioactivity?
- Q4. Write the name of the electromagnetic radiation which is emitted during a natural radioactivity.
- Q5. If A is a radioactive element which emits an α - particle and produces mathrm₁₀₄Rf²⁵⁹. Write the atomic number and mass…
- Q6. What is the average energy released from a single fission process?
- Q7. Which hazardous radiation is the cause for the genetic disease?
- Q8. What is the amount of radiation that may cause death of a person when exposed to it?
- Q9. When and where was the first nuclear reactor built?
- Q10. Give the SI unit of radioactivity.
- Q11. Which material protects us from radiation?
X. Answer the following questions in few sentences.
- Q1. Write any three features of natural and artificial radioactivity.
- Q2. Define critical mass.
- Q3. Define one roentgen.
- Q4. State Soddy and Fajan's displacement law.
- Q5. Give the function of control rods in a nuclear reactor.
- Q6. In Japan, some of the new born children are having congenital diseases. Why?
- Q7. Mr. Ramu is working as an X - ray technician in a hospital. But, he does not wear the lead aprons. What suggestion will…
- Q8. What is stellar energy?
- Q9. Give any two uses of radio isotopes in the field of agriculture?
XI. Answer the following questions in detail.
Unit 7: Atoms and Molecules
43 questions in this unit
I. Choose the best answer.
- Q1. Which of the following has the smallest mass?
- Q2. Which of the following is a triatomic molecule?
- Q3. The volume occupied by 4.4 g of CO₂ at S.T.P
- Q4. Mass of 1 mole of Nitrogen atom is
- Q5. Which of the following represents 1 amu?
- Q6. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
- Q7. The volume occupied by 1 mole of a diatomic gas at S.T.P is
- Q8. In the nucleus of ₂₀Ca⁴⁰, there are
- Q9. The gram molecular mass of oxygen molecule is
- Q10. 1 mole of any substance contains ____ molecules.
II. Fill in the blanks
- Q1. Atoms of different elements having ____ mass number, but ____ atomic numbers are called isobars.
- Q2. Atoms of one element can be transmuted into atoms of other element by ____
- Q3. The sum of the numbers of protons and neutrons of an atom is called its ____
- Q4. Relative atomic mass is otherwise known as ____
- Q5. The average atomic mass of hydrogen is ____ amu.
- Q6. If a molecule is made of similar kind of atoms, then it is called ____ atomic molecule.
- Q7. The number of atoms present in a molecule is called its ____
- Q8. One mole of any gas occupies ____ ml at S.T.P
- Q9. Atomicity of phosphorous is ____
III. Match the following
IV. True or False: (If false give the correct statement)
V. Assertion and Reason:
VI. Short answer questions
VII. Long answer questions
- Q1. Calculate the number of water molecule present in one drop of water which weighs 0.18 g.
- Q2. N₂ + 3 H₂ → 2 NH₃ (The atomic mass of nitrogen is 14, and that of hydrogen is 1) 1 mole of nitrogen ( ____ g) + 3 moles…
- Q3. Calculate the number of moles in i) 27g of Al ii) 1.51 × 10²³ molecules of NH₄Cl
- Q4. Give the salient features of "Modern atomic theory".
- Q5. Derive the relationship between Relative molecular mass and Vapour density.
VIII. HOT question
IX. Solve the following problems
- Q1. How many grams are there in the following? i. 2 moles of hydrogen molecule, H₂ ii. 3 moles of chlorine molecule, Cl₂ ii…
- Q2. Calculate the % of each element in calcium carbonate. (Atomic mass: C-12, O-16, Ca -40)
- Q3. Calculate the % of oxygen in Al₂(SO₄)₃. (Atomic mass: Al-27, O-16, S -32)
- Q4. Calculate the % relative abundance of B -10 and B -11, if its average atomic mass is 10.804 amu.
Unit 8: Periodic Classification of Elements
42 questions in this unit
I. Choose the best answer.
- Q1. The number of periods and groups in the periodic table are ____.
- Q2. The basis of modern periodic law is ____.
- Q3. ____ group contains the member of halogen family.
- Q4. ____ is a relative periodic property
- Q5. Chemical formula of rust is ____.
- Q6. In the alumino thermic process the role of Al is ____.
- Q7. The process of coating the surface of metal with a thin layer of zinc is called ____.
- Q8. Which of the following have inert gases 2 electrons in the outermost shell.
- Q9. Neon shows zero electron affinity due to ____.
- Q10. ____ is an important metal to form amalgam.
II. Fill in the blanks
- Q1. If the electronegativity difference between two bonded atoms in a molecule is greater than 1.7, the nature of bonding i…
- Q2. ____ is the longest period in the periodical table.
- Q3. ____ forms the basis of modern periodic table.
- Q4. If the distance between two Cl atoms in Cl₂ molecule is 1.98Å, then the radius of Cl atom is ____.
- Q5. Among the given species A⁻, A⁺, and A, the smallest one in size is ____.
- Q6. The scientist who propounded the modern periodic law is ____.
- Q7. Across the period, ionic radii ____ (increases,decreases).
- Q8. ____ and ____ are called inner transition elements.
- Q9. The chief ore of Aluminium is ____.
- Q10. The chemical name of rust is ____.
III. Match the following
IV. True or False: (If false give the correct statement)
- Q1. Moseley's periodic table is based on atomic mass.
- Q2. Ionic radius increases across the period from left to right.
- Q3. All ores are minerals; but all minerals cannot be called as ores;
- Q4. Al wires are used as electric cables due to their silvery white colour.
- Q5. An alloy is a heterogenous mixture of metals.
V. Assertion and Reason
- Q1. Answer the following questions using the data given below: Assertion: The nature of bond in HF molecule is ionic Reason…
- Q2. Assertion: Magnesium is used to protect steel from rusting Reason: Magnesium is more reactive than iron
- Q3. Assertion: An uncleaned copper vessel is covered with greenish layer. Reason: copper is not attacked by alkali
VI. Short answer questions
- Q1. A is a reddish brown metal, which combines with O₂ at < 1370 K gives B, a black coloured compound. At a temperature 137…
- Q2. A is a silvery white metal. A combines with O₂ to form B at 800°C, the alloy of A is used in making the aircraft. Find…
- Q3. What is rust? Give the equation for formation of rust.
- Q4. State two conditions necessary for rusting of iron.
VII. Long answer questions
- Q1(a). State the reason for addition of caustic alkali to bauxite ore during purification of bauxite.
- Q1(b). Along with cryolite and alumina, another substance is added to the electrolyte mixture. Name the substance and give one…
- Q2. The electronic configuration of metal A is 2,8,18,1. The metal A when exposed to air and moisture forms B a green layer…
- Q3. Explain smelting process.
VIII. HOT questions
- Q1. Metal A belongs to period 3 and group 13. A in red hot condition reacts with steam to form B. A with strong alkali form…
- Q2. Name the acid that renders aluminium passive. Why?
- Q3(a). Identify the bond between H and F in HF molecule.
- Q3(b). What property forms the basis of identification?
- Q3(c). How does the property vary in periods and in groups?
Unit 9: Solutions
40 questions in this unit
I. Choose the correct answer.
- Q1. A solution is a ____ mixture.
- Q2. The number of components in a binary solution is ____
- Q3. Which of the following is the universal solvent?
- Q4. A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved in a definite amount of solvent at a given temperature is called __…
- Q5. Identify the non aqueous solution.
- Q6. When pressure is increased at constant temperature the solubility of gases in liquid ____.
- Q7. Solubility of NaCl in 100 ml water is 36 g. If 25 g of salt is dissolved in 100 ml of water how much more salt is requi…
- Q8. A 25% alcohol solution means
- Q9. Deliquescence is due to ____
- Q10. Which of the following is hygroscopic in nature?
II. Fill in the blanks
- Q1. The component present in lesser amount, in a solution is called ____
- Q2. Example for liquid in solid type solution is ____
- Q3. Solubility is the amount of solute dissolved in ____ g of solvent.
- Q4. Polar compounds are soluble in ____ solvents
- Q5. Volume persentage decreases with increases in temperature because ____
III. Match the following
IV. True or False: (If false give the correct statement)
- Q1. Solutions which contain three components are called binary solution.
- Q2. In a solution the component which is present in lesser amount is called solvent.
- Q3. Sodium chloride dissolved in water forms a non-aqueous solution.
- Q4. The molecular formula of green vitriol is MgSO₄ · 7H₂O
- Q5. When Silica gel is kept open, it absorbs moisture from the air, because it is hygroscopic in nature
V. Short answer
- Q1. Define the term: Solution
- Q2. What is mean by binary solution
- Q3. Give an example each i) gas in liquid ii) solid in liquid iii) solid in solid iv) gas in gas
- Q4. What is aqueous and non-aqueous solution? Give an example.
- Q5. Define Volume percentage
- Q6. The aquatic animals live more in cold region Why?
- Q7. Define Hydrated salt.
- Q8. A hot saturated solution of copper sulphate forms crystals as it cools. Why?
- Q9. Classify the following substances into deliquescent, hygroscopic. Conc. Sulphuric acid, Copper sulphate penta hydrate,…
VI. Long answer:
- Q1. Write notes on i) saturated solution ii) unsaturated solution
- Q2. Write notes on various factors affecting solubility.
- Q3(a). a) What happens when MgSO₄ · 7H₂O is heated? Write the appropriate equation
- Q3(b). b) Define solubility
- Q4. In what way hygroscopic substances differ from deliquescent substances.
- Q5. A solution is prepared by dissolving 45 g of sugar in 180 g of water. Calculate the mass percentage of solute.
- Q6. 3.5 litres of ethanol is present in 15 litres of aqueous solution of ethanol. Calculate volume percent of ethanol solut…
VII. HOTS
- Q1. Vinu dissolves 50 g of sugar in 250 ml of hot water, Sarath dissolves 50 g of same sugar in 250 ml of cold water. Who w…
- Q2. 'A' is a blue coloured crystaline salt. On heating it loses blue colour and to give 'B'. When water is added, 'B' gives…
- Q3. Will the cool drinks give more fizz at top of the hills or at the foot? Explain
Unit 10: Types of Chemical Reactions
41 questions in this unit
I. Choose the correct answer.
- Q1. mathrmH(2(g)) + Cl(29(g)) → 2HCl((g)) is a
- Q2. Photolysis is a decomposition reaction caused by ____
- Q3. A reaction between carbon and oxygen is represented by mathrmC((s)) + O(2(g)) → CO(2(g)) + Heat. In which of the type(s…
- Q4. The chemical equation mathrmNa₂SO(4(aq)) + BaCl(2(aq)) → BaSO(4(s))downarrow + 2NaCl((aq)) represents which of the foll…
- Q5. Which of the following statements are correct about a chemical equilibrium? (i) It is dynamic in nature (ii) The rate o…
- Q6. A single displacement reaction is represented by mathrmX((s)) + 2HCl((aq)) → XCl(2(aq)) + H(2(g)). Which of the followi…
- Q7. Which of the following is not an “element + element → compound” type reaction?
- Q8. Which of the following represents a precipitation reaction?
- Q9. The pH of a solution is 3. Its [OH⁻] concentration is
- Q10. Powdered CaCO₃ reacts more rapidly than flaky CaCO₃ because of ____.
II. Fill in the blanks
- Q1. A reaction between an acid and a base is called ____.
- Q2. When lithium metal is placed in hydrochloric acid, ____ gas is evolved.
- Q3. The equilibrium attained during the melting of ice is known as ____.
- Q4. The pH of a fruit juice is 5.6. If you add slaked lime to this juice, its pH ____ (increse/decrese)
- Q5. The value of ionic product of water at 25⁰ C is ____.
- Q6. The normal pH of human blood is ____
- Q7. Electrolysis is type of ____ reaction
- Q8. The number of products formed in a synthesis reaction is ____
- Q9. Chemical volcano is an example for ____ type of reaction
- Q10. The ion formed by dissolution of H⁺ in water is called ____
III. Match the following
IV. True or False: (If false give the correct statement)
- Q1. Silver metal can displace hydrogen gas from nitric acid.
- Q2. The pH of rain water containing dissolved gases like SO₃, CO₂, NO₂ will be less than 7.
- Q3. At the equilibrium of a reversible reaction, the concentration of the reactants and the products will be equal.
- Q4. Periodical removal of one of the products of a reversible reaction increases the yield.
- Q5. On dipping a pH paper in a solution, it turns into yellow. Then the solution is basic.
V. Short answer questions:
- Q1. When an aqueous solution of potassium chloride is added to an aqueous solution of silver nitrate, a white precipitate i…
- Q2. Why does the reaction rate of a reaction increase on raising the temperature?
- Q3. Define combination reaction. Give one example for an exothermic combination reaction.
- Q4. Differentiate reversible and irreversible reactions
VI. Answer in detail
VII. HOT questions
VIII. Solve the following problems
Unit 11: Carbon and its Compounds
40 questions in this unit
I. Choose the best answer.
- Q1. The molecular formula of an open chain organic compound is C₃H₆. The class of the compound is
- Q2. The IUPAC name of an organic compound is 3-Methyl butan-1-ol. What type compound it is?
- Q3. The secondary suffix used in IUPAC nomenclature of an aldehyde is ____
- Q4. Which of the following pairs can be the successive members of a homologous series?
- Q5. C₂H₅OH + 3O₂ → 2CO₂ + 3H₂O is a
- Q6. Rectified spirit is an aqueous solution which contains about ____ of ethanol
- Q7. Which of the following are used as anaesthetics?
- Q8. TFM in soaps represents ____ content in soap
- Q9. Which of the following statements is wrong about detergents?
II. Fill in the blanks
- Q1. An atom or a group of atoms which is responsible for chemical characteristics of an organic compound is called ____.
- Q2. The general molecular formula of alkynes is ____
- Q3. In IUPAC name, the carbon skeleton of a compound is represented by ____ (root word / prefix / suffix)
- Q4. (Saturated / Unsaturated) ____ compounds decolourize bromine water.
- Q5. Dehydration of ethanol by conc. Sulphuric acid forms ____ (ethene/ ethane)
- Q6. 100 % pure ethanol is called ____
- Q7. Ethanoic acid turns ____ litmus to ____
- Q8. The alkaline hydrolysis of fatty acids is termed as ____
- Q9. Biodegradable detergents are made of ____ (branched / straight) chain hydrocarbons
III. Match the following
IV. Assertion and Reason:
V. Short answer questions
- Q1. Name the simplest ketone and give its structural formula.
- Q2. Classify the following compounds based on the pattern of carbon chain and give their structural formula: (i) Propane (i…
- Q3. How is ethanoic acid prepared from ethanol? Give the chemical equation.
- Q4. How do detergents cause water pollution? Suggest remedial measures to prevent this pollution?
- Q5. Differentiate soaps and detergents.
VI. Long answer questions
- Q1. What is called homologous series? Give any three of its characteristics?
- Q2. Arrive at, systematically, the IUPAC name of the compound: CH₃-CH₂-CH₂-OH.
- Q3. How is ethanol manufactured from sugarcane?
- Q4(i). Give the balanced chemical equation of the following reactions: (i) Neutralization of NaOH with ethanoic acid.
- Q4(ii). Give the balanced chemical equation of the following reactions: (ii) Evolution of carbon dioxide by the action of ethan…
- Q4(iii). Give the balanced chemical equation of the following reactions: (iii) Oxidation of ethanol by acidified potassium dichr…
- Q4(iv). Give the balanced chemical equation of the following reactions: (iv) Combustion of ethanol.
- Q5. Explain the mechanism of cleansing action of soap.
VII. HOT questions
- Q1(i). The molecular formula of an alcohol is mathrmC₄H₁₀O. The locant number of its –OH group is 2. (i) Draw its structural f…
- Q1(ii). The molecular formula of an alcohol is mathrmC₄H₁₀O. The locant number of its –OH group is 2. (ii) Give its IUPAC name.
- Q1(iii). The molecular formula of an alcohol is mathrmC₄H₁₀O. The locant number of its –OH group is 2. (iii) Is it saturated or…
- Q2(i). An organic compound 'A' is widely used as a preservative and has the molecular formula C₂H₄O₂. This compound reacts wit…
- Q2(ii). An organic compound 'A' is widely used as a preservative and has the molecular formula C₂H₄O₂. This compound reacts wit…
- Q2(iii). An organic compound 'A' is widely used as a preservative and has the molecular formula C₂H₄O₂. This compound reacts wit…
Unit 12: Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology
35 questions in this unit
I. Choose the correct answer
- Q1. Casparian strips are present in the ____ of the root.
- Q2. The endarch condition is the characteristic feature of
- Q3. The xylem and phloem arranged side by side on same radius is called ____
- Q4. Which is formed during anaerobic respiration
- Q5. Kreb's cycle takes place in
- Q6. Oxygen is produced at what point during photosynthesis?
II. Fill in the blanks.
III. State whether the statements are true or false. Correct the false statement.
- Q1. Phloem tissue is involved in the transport of water in plant.
- Q2. The waxy protective covering of a plant is called as cuticle.
- Q3. In monocot stem cambium is present in between xylem and phloem.
- Q4. Palisade parenchyma cells occur below upper epidermis in dicot root.
- Q5. Mesophyll contains chlorophyll.
- Q6. Anaerobic respiration produces more ATP than aerobic respiration.
IV. Match the following
V. Answer in a sentence
VI. Short answer questions
- Q1. Give an account on vascular bundle of dicot stem.
- Q2. Write a short note on mesophyll.
- Q3. Draw and label the structure of oxysomes.
- Q4. Name the three basic tissues system in flowering plants.
- Q5. What is photosynthesis and where in a cell does it occur?
- Q6. What is respiratory quotient?
- Q7. Why should the light dependent reaction occur before the light independent reaction?
- Q8. Write the reaction for photosynthesis?
VII. Long answer questions
- Q1. Differentiate the following a) Monocot root and Dicot root b) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration
- Q2. Describe and name three stages of cellular respiration that aerobic organisms use to obtain energy from glucose.
- Q3. How does the light dependent reaction differ from the light independent reaction? What are the end product and reactant…
Unit 13: Structural Organisation of Animals
36 questions in this unit
I. Choose the correct answer
II. Fill in the blanks
- Q1. The posterior sucker is formed by the fusion of the ____ segments.
- Q2. The existence of two sets of teeth in the life of an animal is called ____ dentition.
- Q3. The anterior end of leech has a lobe-like structure called ____.
- Q4. The blood sucking habit of leech is known as ____.
- Q5. ____ separate nitrogenous waste from the blood in rabbit.
- Q6. ____ spinal nerves are present in rabbit.
III. Identify whether the statements are True or False. Correct the false statement
IV. Match columns I, II and III correctly
V. Answer in a sentence
- Q1. Give the common name of the Hirudinaria granulosa.
- Q2. How does leech respire?
- Q3. Write the dental formula of rabbit.
- Q4. How many pairs of testes are present in leech?
- Q5. How is diastema formed in rabbit?
- Q6. What organs are attached to the two bronchi?
- Q7. Which organ acts as suction pump in leech?
- Q8. What does CNS stand for?
- Q9. Why is the teeth of rabbit called heterodont?
- Q10. How does leech suck blood from the host?
VI. Short answer questions
VII. Long answer questions
VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)
Unit 14: Transportation in Plants and Circulation in Animals
63 questions in this unit
I. Choose the correct answer
- Q1. Active transport involves
- Q2. Water which is absorbed by roots is transported to aerial parts of the plant through
- Q3. During transpiration there is loss of
- Q4. Root hairs are
- Q5. Which of the following process requires energy?
- Q6. The wall of human heart is made of
- Q7. Which is the correct sequence of blood flow
- Q8. A patient with blood group O was injured in an accident and has blood loss. Which group of blood should be used by doct…
- Q9. 'Heart of heart' is called
- Q10. Which one of the following shows correct composition of blood
II. Fill in the blanks
III. Match the following
IV. State whether True or False. If false write the correct statement
- Q1. The phloem is responsible for the translocation of food.
- Q2. Plants lose water by the process of transpiration.
- Q3. The form of sugar transported through the phloem is glucose.
- Q4. In apoplastic movement the water travels through the cell membrane and enter the cell.
- Q5. When guard cells lose water the stoma opens.
- Q6. Initiation and stimulation of heart beat take place by nerves.
- Q7. All veins carry deoxygenated blood.
- Q8. WBC defend the body from bacterial and viral infections.
- Q9. The closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves at the start of the ventricular systole produces the first sound 'LUBB'.
V. Answer in a word or sentence
- Q1. Name two layered protective covering of human heart.
- Q2. What is the shape of RBC in human blood?
- Q3. Why is the colour of the blood red?
- Q4. Which kind of cells are found in the lymph?
- Q5. Name the heart valve associated with the major arteries leaving the ventricles.
- Q6. Mention the artery which supplies blood to the heart muscle.
VI. Short answer questions
- Q1. What causes the opening and closing of guard cells of stomata during transpiration?
- Q2. What is cohesion?
- Q3. Trace the pathway followed by water molecules from the time it enters a plant root to the time it escapes into the atmo…
- Q4. What would happen to the leaves of a plant that transpires more water than its absorption in the roots?
- Q5. Describe the structure and working of the human heart.
- Q6. Why is the circulation in man referred to as double circulation?
- Q7. What are heart sounds? How are they produced?
- Q8. What is the importance of valves in the heart?
- Q9. Who discovered Rh factor? Why was it named so?
- Q10. How are arteries and veins structurally different from one another?
- Q11. Why is the Sinoatrial node called the pacemaker of heart?
- Q12. Differentiate between systemic circulation and pulmonary circulation.
- Q13. The complete events of cardiac cycle last for 0.8 sec. What is the timing for each event?
VII. Give reasons for the following statements
- Q1. Minerals cannot be passively absorbed by the roots.
- Q2. Guard cells are responsible for opening and closing of stomata.
- Q3. The movement of substances in the phloem can be in any direction.
- Q4. Minerals in the plants are not lost when the leaf falls.
- Q5. The walls of the right ventricle are thicker than the right auricles.
- Q6. Mature RBC in mammals do not have cell organelles.
VIII. Long answer questions
- Q1. How do plants absorb water? Explain.
- Q2. What is transpiration? Give the importance of transpiration.
- Q3. Why are leucocytes classified as granulocytes and agranulocytes? Name each cell and mention its functions.
- Q4. Differentiate between systole and diastole. Explain the conduction of heart beat.
- Q5. Enumerate the functions of blood.
IX. Assertion and Reasoning
X. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)
- Q1. When any dry plant material is kept in water, they swell up. Name and define the phenomenon involved in this change.
- Q2. Why are the walls of the left ventricle thicker than the other chambers of the heart?
- Q3. Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sound of the heart. Why?
- Q4. How does the pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein differ in their function when compared to a normal artery and vein?
- Q5. Transpiration is a necessary evil in plants. Explain.
Unit 15: Nervous System
49 questions in this unit
I. Choose the correct answer
- Q1. Bipolar neurons are found in
- Q2. Site for processing of vision, hearing, memory, speech, intelligence and thought is
- Q3. In reflex action, the reflex arc is formed by
- Q4. Dendrites transmit impulse ____ cell body and axon transmit impulse ____ cell body.
- Q5. The outer most of the three cranial meninges is
- Q6. There are ____ pairs of cranial nerves and ____ pairs of spinal nerves.
- Q7. The neurons which carries impulse from the central nervous system to the muscle fibre.
- Q8. Which nervous band connects the two cerebral hemispheres of brain?
- Q9. Node of Ranvier is found in
- Q10. Vomiting centre is located in
- Q11. Nerve cells do not possess
- Q12. A person who met with an accident lost control of body temperature, water balance, and hunger. Which of the following p…
II. Fill in the blanks
- Q1. ____ is the longest cell in our body.
- Q2. Impulses travels rapidly in ____ neurons.
- Q3. A change in the environment that causes an animal to react is called ____.
- Q4. ____ carries the impulse towards the cell body.
- Q5. The two antagonistic component of autonomic nervous system are ____ and ____.
- Q6. A neuron contains all cell organelles except ____.
- Q7. ____ maintains the constant pressure inside the cranium.
- Q8. ____ and ____ increases the surface area of cerebrum.
- Q9. The part of human brain which acts as relay center is ____.
III. State whether true or false, if false write the correct statement
- Q1. Dendrons are the longest fibres that conducts impulses away from the cell body.
- Q2. Sympathetic nervous system is a part of central nervous system.
- Q3. Hypothalamus is the thermoregulatory centre of human body.
- Q4. Cerebrum controls the voluntary actions of our body.
- Q5. In the central nervous system myelinated fibres form the white matter.
- Q6. All the nerves in the body are covered and protected by meninges.
- Q7. Cerebrospinal fluid provides nutrition to brain.
- Q8. Reflex arc allows the rapid response of the body to a stimulus.
- Q9. Pons helps in regulating respiration.
IV. Match the following
V. Understand the assertion statement. Justify the reason given and choose the correct choice
VI. Short answer questions
VII. Differentiate between
VIII. Long answer questions
- Q1. With a neat labelled diagram explain the structure of a neuron.
- Q2. Illustrate the structure and functions of brain.
- Q3. What will you do if someone pricks your hand with a needle? Elucidate the pathway of response with a neat labelled diag…
- Q4. Describe the structure of spinal cord.
- Q5. How nerve impulses are transferred from one neuron to next neuron?
- Q6. Classify neurons based on its structure.
Unit 16: Plant and Animal Hormones
56 questions in this unit
I Choose the correct answer
- Q1. Gibberellins cause:
- Q2. The hormone which has positive effect on apical dominance is:
- Q3. Which one of the following hormones is naturally not found in plants:
- Q4. Avena coleoptile test was conducted by
- Q5. LH is secreted by
- Q6. Identify the exocrine gland
- Q7. Which organ acts as both exocrine gland as well as endocrine gland
- Q8. Which one is referred as "Master Gland"?
II Fill in the blanks
- Q1. ____ causes cell elongation, apical dominance and prevents abscission.
- Q2. ____ is a gaseous hormone involved in abscission of organs and acceleration of fruit ripening.
- Q3. ____ causes stomatal closure.
- Q4. Gibberellins induce stem elongation in ____ plants.
- Q5. The hormone which has negative effect on apical dominance is ____.
- Q6. Calcium metabolism of the body is controlled by ____.
- Q7. In the islets of Langerhans, beta cells secrete ____.
- Q8. The growth and functions of thyroid gland is controlled by ____.
- Q9. Decreased secretion of thyroid hormones in the children leads to ____.
III a) Match Column I with Columns II and III
III b) Match the following hormones with their deficiency states
IV State whether True or false, If false write the correct statement
- Q1. A plant hormone concerned with stimulation of cell division and promotion of nutrient mobilization is cytokinin.
- Q2. Gibberellins cause parthenocarpy in tomato.
- Q3. Ethylene retards senescence of leaves, flowers and fruits.
- Q4. Exopthalmic goiter is due to the over secretion of thyroxine.
- Q5. Pituitary gland is divided into four lobes.
- Q6. Estrogen is secreted by corpus luteum.
V Assertion and Reasoning
- Q1. Direction: In each of the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding statement of re…
- Q2. Assertion (A): Pituitary gland is referred as "Master gland". Reason (R): It controls the functioning of other endocrin…
- Q3. Assertion (A): Diabetes mellitus increases the blood sugar levels. Reason (R): Insulin decreases the blood sugar levels.
VI Answer in a word or sentence
- Q1. Which hormone promotes the production of male flowers in Cucurbits?
- Q2. Write the name of a synthetic auxin.
- Q3. Which hormone induces parthenocarpy in tomatoes?
- Q4. What is the hormone responsible for the secretion of milk in female after child birth?
- Q5. Name the hormones which regulates water and mineral metabolism in man.
- Q6. Which hormone is secreted during emergency situation in man?
- Q7. Which gland secretes digestive enzymes and hormones?
- Q8. Name the endocrine glands associated with kidneys.
VII Short answer questions
- Q1. What are synthetic auxins? Give examples.
- Q2. What is bolting? How can it be induced artificially?
- Q3. Bring out any two physiological activities of abscisic acid
- Q4. What will you do to prevent leaf fall and fruit drop in plants? Support your answer with reason.
- Q5. What are chemical messengers?
- Q6. Write the differences between endocrine and exocrine gland.
- Q7. What is the role of parathormone?
- Q8. What are the hormones secreted by posterior lobe of the pituitary gland? Mention the tissues on which they exert their…
- Q9. Why are thyroid hormones refered as personality hormone?
- Q10. Which hormone requires iodine for its formation? What will happen if intake of iodine in our diet is low?
VIII. Long answer questions
- Q1. (a) Name the gaseous plant hormone. Describe its three different actions in plants. (b) Which hormone is known as stres…
- Q2. Describe an experiment which demonstrates that growth stimulating hormone is produced at the tip of coleoptile.
- Q3. Write the physiological effects of gibberellins.
- Q4. Where are estrogens produced? What is the role of estrogens in the human body?
- Q5. What are the conditions which occur due to lack of ADH and insulin? How are the conditions different from one another?
IX Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)
- Q1. What would be expected to happen if a. Gibberellin is applied to rice seedlings. b. A rotten fruit gets mixed with unri…
- Q2. A plant hormone was first discovered in Japan when rice plants were suffering from Bakanae disease caused by Gibberella…
- Q3. Senthil has high blood pressure, protruded eyeball and an increased body temperature. Name the endocrine gland involved…
- Q4. Sanjay is sitting in the exam hall. Before the start of the exam, he sweats a lot, with increased rate of heart beat. W…
- Q5. Susan's father feels very tired and frequently urinates. After clinical diagnosis he was advised to take an injection d…
Unit 17: Reproduction in Plants and Animals
58 questions in this unit
I. Choose the correct answer
- Q1. The plant which propagates with the help of its leaves is ____.
- Q2. Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in ____.
- Q3. Syngamy results in the formation of ____.
- Q4. The essential parts of a flower are ____.
- Q5. Anemophilous flowers have ____.
- Q6. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of ____.
- Q7. What is true of gametes?
- Q8. A single highly coiled tube where sperms are stored, get concentrated and mature is known as
- Q9. The large elongated cells that provide nutrition to developing sperms are
- Q10. Estrogen is secreted by
- Q11. Which one of the following is an IUCD?
II. Fill in the blanks
- Q1. The embryo sac in a typical dicot at the time of fertilization is ____.
- Q2. After fertilization the ovary develops into ____.
- Q3. Planaria reproduces asexually by ____.
- Q4. Fertilization is ____ in humans
- Q5. The implantation of the embryo occurs at about ____ day of fertilization
- Q6. ____ is the first secretion from the mammary gland after child birth
- Q7. Prolactin is a hormone produced by ____.
III. (a) Match the following
III. (b) Match the following terms with their respective meanings
IV. State whether the following statements are True or False. Correct the false statement
- Q1. Stalk of the ovule is called pedicle.
- Q2. Seeds are the product of asexual reproduction.
- Q3. Yeast reproduces asexually by means of multiple fission.
- Q4. The part of the pistil which serves as a receptive structure for the pollen is called as style.
- Q5. Insect pollinated flowers are characterized by dry and smooth pollen.
- Q6. Sex organs produce gametes which are diploid.
- Q7. LH is secreted by the posterior pituitary.
- Q8. Menstrual cycle ceases during pregnancy.
- Q9. Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete formation.
- Q10. The increased level of estrogen and progesterone is responsible for menstruation.
V. Answer in a word or sentence
- Q1. If one pollen grain produces two male gametes, how many pollen grains are needed to fertilize 10 ovules?
- Q2. In which part of the flower germination of pollen grains takes place?
- Q3. Name two organisms which reproduces through budding.
- Q4. Mention the function of endosperm.
- Q5. Name the hormone responsible for the vigorous contractions of the uterine muscles.
- Q6. What is the enzyme present in acrosome of sperm?
- Q7. When is World Menstrual Hygiene Day observed?
- Q8. What is the need for contraception?
- Q9. Name the part of the human female reproductive system where the following occurs. a. Fertilization b. Implantation
VI. Short answer question
- Q1. What will happen if you cut planaria into small fragments?
- Q2. Why is vegetative propagation practiced for growing some type of plants?
- Q3. How does binary fission differ from multiple fission?
- Q4. Define triple fusion.
- Q5. Write the characteristics of insect pollinated flowers.
- Q6. Name the secondary sex organs in male
- Q7. What is colostrum? How is milk production hormonally regulated?
- Q8. How can menstrual hygiene be maintained during menstrual days?
- Q9. How does developing embryo gets its nourishment inside the mother's body?
- Q10. Identify the parts A, B, C and D
- Q11. Write the events involved in the sexual reproduction of a flowering plant. a. Discuss the first event and write the typ…
- Q12. Why are the human testes located outside the abdominal cavity? Name the pouch in which they are present.
- Q13. Luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is also called the secretory phase. Give reason.
- Q14. Why are family planning methods not adopted by all the people of our country?
VII. Long answer questions
VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)
- Q1. In angiosperms the pollen germinates to produce pollen tube that carries two gametes. What is the purpose of carrying t…
- Q2. Why menstrual cycle does not take place before puberty and during pregnancy?
- Q3. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow Rahini and her parents were watching a television progr…
Unit 18: Genetics
43 questions in this unit
I. Choose the correct answer
- Q1. According to Mendel alleles have the following character
- Q2. 9: 3: 3: 1 ratio is due to
- Q3. The region of the chromosome where the spindle fibres get attached during cell division
- Q4. The centromere is found at the centre of the ____ chromosome.
- Q5. The ____ units form the backbone of the DNA.
- Q6. Okasaki fragments are joined together by ____.
- Q7. The number of chromosomes found in human beings are ____.
- Q8. The loss of one or more chromosome in a ploidy is called ____.
II. Fill in the blanks
- Q1. The pairs of contrasting character (traits) of Mendel are called ____.
- Q2. Physical expression of a gene is called ____
- Q3. The thin thread like structures found in the nucleus of each cell are called ____.
- Q4. DNA consists of two ____ chains
- Q5. An inheritable change in the amount or the structure of a gene or a chromosome is called ____.
III. Identify whether the statement are True or False. Correct the false statement
- Q1. A typical Mendelian dihybrid ratio of F₂ generation is 3:1.
- Q2. A recessive factor is altered by the presence of a dominant factor.
- Q3. Each gamete has only one allele of a gene.
- Q4. Hybrid is an offspring from a cross between genetically different parent.
- Q5. Some of the chromosomes have an elongated knob-like appendages known as telomere.
- Q6. New nucleotides are added and new complementary strand of DNA is formed with the help of enzyme DNA polymerase.
- Q7. Down's syndrome is the genetic condition with 45 chromosomes.
IV. Match the following
V. Answer in a sentence
- Q1. What is a cross in which inheritance of two pairs of contrasting characters are studied?
- Q2. Name the conditions when both the alleles are identical?
- Q3. A garden pea plant produces axial white flowers. Another of the same species produced terminal violet flowers. Identify…
- Q4. What is the name given to the segments of DNA, which are responsible for the inheritance of a particular character?
- Q5. Name the bond which binds the nucleotides in a DNA.
VI. Short answers questions
- Q1. Why did Mendel select pea plant for his experiments?
- Q2. What do you understand by the term phenotype and genotype?
- Q3. What are allosomes?
- Q4. What are Okazaki fragments?
- Q5. Why is euploidy considered to be advantageous to both plants and animals?
- Q6. A pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with pure dwarf plant (tt), what would be the F₁ and F₂ generations? Explain.
- Q7. Explain the structure of a chromosome.
- Q8. Label the parts of the DNA in the diagram given below. Explain the structure briefly.
VII. Long answer questions
- Q1. Explain with an example the inheritance of dihybrid cross. How is it different from monohybrid cross?
- Q2. How is the structure of DNA organised? What is the biological significance of DNA?
- Q3. The sex of the new born child is a matter of chance and neither of the parents may be considered responsible for it. Wh…
VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)
- Q1. Flowers of the garden pea are bisexual and self-pollinated. Therefore, it is difficult to perform hybridization experim…
- Q2(a). Pure-bred tall pea plants are first crossed with pure-bred dwarf pea plants. The pea plants obtained in F₁ generation a…
- Q2(b). b. What is the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in F₂ generation?
- Q2(c). c. Which type of plants were missing in F₁ generation but reappeared in F₂ generation?
- Q3. Kavitha gave birth to a female baby. Her family members say that she can give birth to only female babies because of he…
IX. Value based question
Unit 19: Origin and Evolution of Life
26 questions in this unit
I Choose the correct answer
II Fill in the blanks
- Q1. The characters developed by the animals during their life time, in response to the environmental changes are called ___…
- Q2. The degenerated and non-functional organs found in an organism are called ____.
- Q3. The forelimbs of bat and human are examples of ____ organs.
- Q4. The theory of natural selection for evolution was proposed by ____.
III State true or false. Correct the false statements
IV Match the following
V Answer in a word or sentence
VI Short answers questions
VII Long answer questions
IX Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)
- Q1. Arun was playing in the garden. Suddenly he saw a dragon fly sitting on a plant. He observed the wings of it. He though…
- Q2. Imprints of fossils tell us about evolution-How?
- Q3. Octopus, cockroach and frog all have eyes. Can we group these animals together to establish a common evolutionary origi…
Unit 20: Breeding and Biotechnology
57 questions in this unit
I Choose the correct answer
- Q1. Which method of crop improvement can be practised by a farmer if he is inexperienced?
- Q2. Pusa Komal is a disease resistant variety of ____.
- Q3. Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of ____.
- Q4. The miracle rice which saved millions of lives and celebrated its 50th birthday is ____
- Q5. Which of the following is used to produce products useful to humans by biotechnology techniques?
- Q6. We can cut the DNA with the help of
- Q7. rDNA is a
- Q8. DNA fingerprinting is based on the principle of identifying --------------- sequences of DNA
- Q9. Organisms with modified endogenous gene or a foregin gene are also known as
- Q10. In a hexaploid wheat( 2n = 6 x = 42) the haploid (n) and the basic(x) number of chromosomes respectively are
II Fill in the blanks
- Q1. Economically important crop plants with superior quality are raised by ____.
- Q2. A protein rich wheat variety is ____.
- Q3. ____ is the chemical used for doubling the chromosomes.
- Q4. The scientific process which produces crop plants enriched with desirable nutrients is called ____.
- Q5. Rice normally grows well in alluvial soil, but ____ is a rice variety produced by mutation breeding that grows well in…
- Q6. ____ technique made it possible to genetically engineer living organism.
- Q7. Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA molecule at specific positions known as ____.
- Q8. Similar DNA fingerprinting is obtained for ____.
- Q9. ____ cells are undifferentiated mass of cells.
- Q10. In gene cloning the DNA of interest is integrated in a ____.
III State whether true or false. If false, write the correct statement
- Q1. Raphano brassica is a man-made tetraploid produced by colchicine treatment.
- Q2. The process of producing an organism with more than two sets of chromosome is called mutation.
- Q3. A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual reproduction are called a pureline.
- Q4. Iron fortified rice variety determines the protein quality of the cultivated plant
- Q5. Golden rice is a hybrid.
- Q6. Bt gene from bacteria can kill insects.
- Q7. In vitro fertilisation means the fertilisation done inside the body.
- Q8. DNA fingerprinting technique was developed by Alec Jeffrey.
- Q9. Molecular scissors refers to DNA ligases.
IV Match the following
V Understand the assertion statement, justify the reason given and choose the correct choice
- Q1. Assertion: Hybrid is superior than either of its parents. Reason: Hybrid vigour is lost upon inbreeding.
- Q2. Assertion: Colchicine reduces the chromosome number. Reason: It promotes the movement of sister chromatids to the oppos…
- Q3. Assertion: rDNA is superior over hybridisation techniques. Reason: Desired genes are inserted without introducing the u…
VI Answer in a sentence
- Q1. Give the name of wheat variety having higher dietary fibre and protein.
- Q2. Semi-dwarf varieties were introduced in rice. This was made possible by the presence of dwarfing gene in rice. Name thi…
- Q3. Define genetic engineering.
- Q4. Name the types of stem cells.
- Q5. What are transgenic organisms?
- Q6. State the importance of biofertiliser.
VII Short answers questions
- Q1. Discuss the method of breeding for disease resistance.
- Q2. Name three improved characteristics of wheat that helped India to achieve high productivity.
- Q3. Name two maize hybrids rich in amino acid lysine
- Q4(a). Distinguish between somatic gene therapy and germ line gene therapy
- Q4(b). Distinguish between undifferentiated cells and differentiated cells
- Q5. State the applications of DNA fingerprinting technique.
- Q6. How are stem cells useful in regenerative process?
- Q7. Differentiate between outbreeding and inbreeding.
VIII Long answers questions
- Q1. What are the effects of hybrid vigour in animals.
- Q2. Describe mutation breeding with an example.
- Q3. Biofortification may help in removing hidden hunger. How?
- Q4. With a neat labelled diagram explain the techniques involved in gene cloning.
- Q5. Discuss the importance of biotechnology in the field of medicine.
IX Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)
- Q1. A breeder wishes to incorporate desirable characters into the crop plants. Prepare a list of characters he will incorpo…
- Q2. Organic farming is better than Green Revolution. Give reasons
- Q3. Polyploids are characterised by gigantism. Justify your answer.
- Q4(i). ‘P’ is a gene required for the synthesis of vitamin A. It is integrated with genome of ‘Q’ to produce genetically modif…
- Q4(ii). ‘P’ is a gene required for the synthesis of vitamin A. It is integrated with genome of ‘Q’ to produce genetically modif…
Coming soon
- Unit 21: Health and Diseases
- Unit 22: Environmental Management
- Unit 23: Visual Communication